Hemolytic anemia
Anemia resulting from the premature destruction of the peripheral blood red cells. It may be congenital or it may be caused by infections, medications, or malignancies.
Disease Alternative Name
Recent Cases of Hemolytic anemia
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Top Hemolytic anemia Doctors on Curofy
Top doctors who continously share their opinions on Hemolytic anemiaBARC Hospital
Consulting Surgeon
LTMMC
MS
Global Hospital
Gastroenetrology and Hepatology
Global Hospital
GASTROENTEROLOGY
National Institute of Medical Science
Md Paediatrics
National Institute of Medical Science
MD pediatrics
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Under Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY health insurance scheme, the Union government has provided free annual health coverage of Rs 5 lakh to all senior citizens aged 70 and above, regardless of their income. Do you believe the age limit should be extended to include senior citizens under 70 years of age?
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Pedunculated subserous fibroid torsion *Chief Complaints* Abdominal pain with vomiting *History* 45 year old Para 2 previous 2 normal vaginal deliveries presented with sudden onset abdominal pain with two episodes of vomiting. Pain gradually increased in intensity. Patient had history of heaviness in lower abdomen for 3 months. No history of loss of weight or appetite. *Vitals* Pulse 100/ min. BP 116/90 mmHg. *Physical Examination* Per abdomen mass palpable around 16 weeks size of gravid uterus mobile from side to side. Tenderness present . Per vaginal examination uterus irregularly enlarged to 16 weeks. Tenderness present. *Investigations* Ultrasound done revealed fibroid 9*8 cm in uterus in fundal area. Free fluid in pelvis present. *Diagnosis* Fibroid uterus with acute abdomen. *Management* Patient taken for emergency laparotomy and proceed. OT findings :Fundal subserous pedunculated fibroid with torsion of two and half turns with intra fibroid hemorrhage and necrosis. Rest uterus normal. Bilateral ovaries and fallopian tubes normal. Peritoneal fluid hemorrhagic. Myomectomy done and peritoneal lavage given.
Dr. Viraj R. Naik0 Like0 Answer A 40 year male having multiple joint involvement, PIP ,wrist , right shoulder, knee joint He has presentation of migratory arthritis. On physical examination he has subcutaneous nodules (painless & non tender) on both forearm since 3 years. *On asking he said his R.A FACTOR was Negative* What should be the next line of investigations. & DDx ? *Chief Complaints* He is suffering from pain & tenderness in joints. Assymetric joint involvement. From last 3 years *History* No family history of arthritis *Physical Examination* Subcutaneous nodules painless non tender on forearms
Wahib Zaidi0 Like0 Answer
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